Oral Pathology

1. Primary Cause of Osteomyelitis in the Jaw
What is the primary cause of osteomyelitis in the jaw?
A: Dental infections
B: Trauma
C: Systemic diseases
D: Radiation therapy
Answer: A: Dental infections

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2. Most Common Pathogen in Osteomyelitis of the Jaw
Which pathogen is most commonly associated with osteomyelitis of the jaw?
A: Streptococcus
B: Staphylococcus aureus
C: Candida albicans
D: Escherichia coli
Answer: B: Staphylococcus aureus

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3. Initial Treatment for Acute Osteomyelitis
What is the initial treatment approach for acute osteomyelitis of the jaw?
A: Surgical debridement
B: Intravenous antibiotics
C: Oral antibiotics
D: Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
Answer: B: Intravenous antibiotics

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4. Chronic Osteomyelitis Characteristic
Which characteristic is typical of chronic osteomyelitis of the jaw?
A: Acute pain and swelling
B: Sinus tract formation
C: High fever
D: Rapid onset
Answer: B: Sinus tract formation

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5. Role of Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy
What role does hyperbaric oxygen therapy play in treating osteomyelitis of the jaw?
A: Primary treatment
B: Adjunctive treatment to enhance antibiotic efficacy and wound healing
C: Prophylactic measure
D: Diagnostic tool
Answer: B: Adjunctive treatment to enhance antibiotic efficacy and wound healing

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6. Radiographic Feature of Osteomyelitis
What is a common radiographic feature of osteomyelitis in the jaw?
A: Diffuse radiolucency with sequestra
B: Radiopaque lesions
C: Well-defined borders
D: Ground glass appearance
Answer: A: Diffuse radiolucency with sequestra

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7. Complication of Osteomyelitis
What is a common complication of untreated osteomyelitis of the jaw?
A: Osteosarcoma
B: Pathologic fracture
C: Lichen planus
D: Oral candidiasis
Answer: B: Pathologic fracture

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8. Differential Diagnosis of Jaw Pain
Which condition should be considered in the differential diagnosis of jaw pain and swelling besides osteomyelitis?
A: Temporomandibular joint disorder
B: Leukoplakia
C: Oral lichen planus
D: Geographic tongue
Answer: A: Temporomandibular joint disorder

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9. Long-Term Antibiotic Therapy
What is the typical duration for antibiotic therapy in chronic osteomyelitis of the jaw?
A: 1-2 weeks
B: 3-4 weeks
C: 6-8 weeks
D: 10-12 weeks
Answer: C: 6-8 weeks

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10. Surgical Management
When is surgical management indicated for osteomyelitis of the jaw?
A: Only in acute cases
B: When there is necrotic bone that needs debridement
C: As the first line of treatment
D: For diagnosis confirmation
Answer: B: When there is necrotic bone that needs debridement

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11. Definition of Osteoradionecrosis
What is osteoradionecrosis?
A: Bone necrosis due to radiation therapy
B: Bone infection caused by bacteria
C: Bone inflammation due to trauma
D: Bone tumor formation
Answer: A: Bone necrosis due to radiation therapy

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12. Primary Risk Factor for Osteoradionecrosis
What is the primary risk factor for developing osteoradionecrosis?
A: Chemotherapy
B: Radiation dose and exposure
C: Dental caries
D: Diabetes
Answer: B: Radiation dose and exposure

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13. Initial Symptom of Osteoradionecrosis
What is an initial symptom of osteoradionecrosis of the jaw?
A: Jaw stiffness
B: Toothache
C: Ulceration and exposed bone
D: Swollen lymph nodes
Answer: C: Ulceration and exposed bone

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14. Diagnostic Imaging for Osteoradionecrosis
Which imaging modality is commonly used to diagnose osteoradionecrosis?
A: MRI
B: CT scan
C: Panoramic radiograph
D: Ultrasound
Answer: B: CT scan

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15. Management of Early-Stage Osteoradionecrosis
How is early-stage osteoradionecrosis typically managed?
A: Immediate surgery
D: Chemotherapy
C: Radiation therapy
D: Conservative management with antibiotics and oral rinses
Answer: D: Conservative management with antibiotics and oral rinses

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16. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy
What is the role of hyperbaric oxygen therapy in osteoradionecrosis?
A: It is used as the sole treatment
B: It helps to improve oxygenation and promote healing
C: It is used only for pain management
D: It is not effective
Answer: B: It helps to improve oxygenation and promote healing

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17. Severe Cases of Osteoradionecrosis
What is the recommended treatment for severe cases of osteoradionecrosis?
A: Antibiotic therapy only
B: Surgical resection of necrotic bone
C: Watchful waiting
D: Increased radiation exposure
Answer: B: Surgical resection of necrotic bone

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18. Prevention of Osteoradionecrosis
Which measure can help prevent osteoradionecrosis in patients undergoing radiation therapy?
A: Regular dental check-ups and preventive care
B: Avoiding antibiotics
C: Increased radiation doses
D: Chemotherapy
Answer: A: Regular dental check-ups and preventive care

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19. Common Complication of Osteoradionecrosis
What is a common complication of osteoradionecrosis of the jaw?
A: Jaw fractures
B: Increased tooth mobility
C: Oral candidiasis
D: Geographic tongue
Answer: A: Jaw fractures

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20. Long-Term Management of Osteoradionecrosis
What is a key aspect of long-term management of osteoradionecrosis?
A: Continuous antibiotic therapy
B: Regular follow-up and monitoring for recurrence
C: Increased radiation exposure
D: Tooth whitening
Answer: B: Regular follow-up and monitoring for recurrence

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21. Primary Cause of BRONJ
What primarily causes bisphosphonate-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (BRONJ)?
A: Use of bisphosphonate medications
B: Bacterial infections
C: Viral infections
D: Trauma
Answer: A: Use of bisphosphonate medications

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22. Common Bisphosphonates Associated with BRONJ
Which bisphosphonates are commonly associated with BRONJ?
A: Alendronate and zoledronate
B: Amoxicillin and clavulanate
C: Acetaminophen and ibuprofen
D: Fluconazole and ketoconazole
Answer: A: Alendronate and zoledronate

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23. Initial Sign of BRONJ
What is an initial sign of BRONJ?
A: Toothache
B: Exposed necrotic bone
C: Gingival bleeding
D: Halitosis
Answer: B: Exposed necrotic bone

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24. Risk Factors for BRONJ
Which of the following is a risk factor for developing BRONJ?
A: Short-term bisphosphonate use
B: Dental extractions and invasive dental procedures
C: Routine dental cleaning
D: Use of fluoride toothpaste
Answer: B: Dental extractions and invasive dental procedures

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25. Management of Early-Stage BRONJ
How is early-stage BRONJ typically managed?
A: Surgical resection
B: Conservative management with antimicrobial mouth rinses and antibiotics
C: Increased bisphosphonate dosage
D: Radiation therapy
Answer: B: Conservative management with antimicrobial mouth rinses and antibiotics

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26. Role of Dental Examinations
Why are regular dental examinations important for patients on bisphosphonate therapy?
A: To monitor for signs of BRONJ and prevent its occurrence
B: To provide fluoride treatments
C: To avoid dental extractions
D: To enhance tooth color
Answer: A: To monitor for signs of BRONJ and prevent its occurrence

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27. Surgical Management of BRONJ
When is surgical management indicated for BRONJ?
A: In all cases
B: Only when conservative management fails
C: As the first line of treatment
D: For diagnosis confirmation
Answer: B: Only when conservative management fails

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28. Preventive Measure for BRONJ
What is a preventive measure for BRONJ in patients requiring bisphosphonate therapy?
A: Avoiding invasive dental procedures
B: Use of fluoride mouthwash
C: Regular use of antiseptic mouthwash
D: Increased intake of dairy products
Answer: A: Avoiding invasive dental procedures

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29. Imaging Modality for BRONJ
Which imaging modality is commonly used to assess BRONJ?
A: Panoramic radiograph
B: MRI
C: CT scan
D: Ultrasound
Answer: C: CT scan

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30. Patient Education for BRONJ
What is an important aspect of patient education for those on bisphosphonate therapy?
A: Promoting a high-sugar diet
B: Encouraging increased bisphosphonate dosage
C: Advising against dental check-ups
D: Informing them about the risks of BRONJ and the importance of oral hygiene
Answer: D: Informing them about the risks of BRONJ and the importance of oral hygiene

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31. Characteristic Feature of Fibrous Dysplasia
What is a characteristic feature of fibrous dysplasia of the jaw?
A: Ground glass appearance on radiographs
B: Radiopaque lesions
C: Well-defined borders
D: Diffuse radiolucency
Answer: A: Ground glass appearance on radiographs

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32. Etiology of Fibrous Dysplasia
What is the etiology of fibrous dysplasia?
A: Trauma
B: Bacterial infection
C: Viral infection
D: Genetic mutation
Answer: D: Genetic mutation

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33. Common Symptom of Fibrous Dysplasia
What is a common symptom of fibrous dysplasia of the jaw?
A: Gingival bleeding
B: Severe pain
C: Painless swelling
D: Tooth mobility
Answer: C: Painless swelling

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34. Diagnosis of Fibrous Dysplasia
How is fibrous dysplasia typically diagnosed?
A: Clinical examination and radiographic findings
B: Blood tests
C: Saliva tests
D: Biopsy
Answer: A: Clinical examination and radiographic findings

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35. Initial Management of Fibrous Dysplasia
What is the initial management approach for fibrous dysplasia of the jaw?
A: Observation and monitoring
B: Immediate surgery
C: Chemotherapy
D: Radiation therapy
Answer: A: Observation and monitoring

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36. Surgical Intervention for Fibrous Dysplasia
When is surgical intervention indicated for fibrous dysplasia?
A: Only in all cases
B: When there is significant functional or cosmetic deformity
C: As the first line of treatment
D: For diagnosis confirmation
Answer: B: When there is significant functional or cosmetic deformity

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37. Complication of Fibrous Dysplasia
What is a common complication of fibrous dysplasia of the jaw?
A: Malignant transformation
B: Pathologic fracture
C: Oral candidiasis
D: Geographic tongue
Answer: B: Pathologic fracture

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38. Role of Genetic Counseling
What role does genetic counseling play in fibrous dysplasia?
A: It is important for understanding the hereditary nature and implications
B: It provides dietary recommendations
C: It focuses on pain management
D: It is not relevant
Answer: A: It is important for understanding the hereditary nature and implications

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39. Radiographic Monitoring
Why is radiographic monitoring important in fibrous dysplasia?
A: To diagnose dental caries
B: To improve tooth color
C: To assess the progression of the lesion and detect complications
D: To monitor for oral infections
Answer: C: To assess the progression of the lesion and detect complications

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40. Prognosis of Fibrous Dysplasia
What is the general prognosis of fibrous dysplasia of the jaw?
A: Poor
B: Fair to good with appropriate management
C: Excellent without any treatment
D: It always leads to malignancy
Answer: B: Fair to good with appropriate management

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41. Early Sign of Osteosarcoma
What is an early sign of osteosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Rapidly growing mass
B: Tooth discoloration
C: Mild discomfort
D: Increased salivation
Answer: A: Rapidly growing mass

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42. Diagnostic Tool for Osteosarcoma
Which diagnostic tool is most useful for detecting osteosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Panoramic radiograph
B: MRI
C: Ultrasound
D: CT scan
Answer: D: CT scan

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43. Characteristic Radiographic Feature of Osteosarcoma
What is a characteristic radiographic feature of osteosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Diffuse radiolucency
B: Ground glass appearance
C: Sunburst pattern
D: Radiopaque lesions
Answer: C: Sunburst pattern

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44. Primary Treatment for Osteosarcoma
What is the primary treatment for osteosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Surgical resection with wide margins
B: Chemotherapy alone
C: Radiation therapy alone
D: Observation
Answer: A: Surgical resection with wide margins

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45. Role of Chemotherapy in Osteosarcoma
What is the role of chemotherapy in the treatment of osteosarcoma of the jaw?
A: It is used as an adjunct to surgery to control systemic disease
B: It is the sole treatment
C: It is not used
D: It is used for pain management only
Answer: A: It is used as an adjunct to surgery to control systemic disease

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46. Risk Factor for Osteosarcoma
Which of the following is a risk factor for developing osteosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Prior radiation therapy
B: Dental caries
C: Tobacco use
D: Frequent dental visits
Answer: A: Prior radiation therapy

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47. Common Symptom of Advanced Osteosarcoma
What is a common symptom of advanced osteosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Painless, mobile mass
B: Severe pain and swelling
C: Gingival bleeding
D: Tooth mobility
Answer: B: Severe pain and swelling

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48. Prognosis of Osteosarcoma
What factor most significantly affects the prognosis of osteosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Early detection and complete surgical resection
B: Tooth color
C: Frequency of dental cleanings
D: Type of toothbrush used
Answer: A: Early detection and complete surgical resection

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49. Role of Radiographic Follow-Up
Why is radiographic follow-up important in patients treated for osteosarcoma of the jaw?
A: To improve tooth color
B: To monitor for recurrence and metastasis
C: To diagnose dental caries
D: To monitor for oral infections
Answer: B: To monitor for recurrence and metastasis

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50. Prevention of Osteosarcoma
What is a preventive measure for osteosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Tooth whitening procedures
B: Frequent use of mouthwash
C: Avoiding unnecessary radiation exposure
D: Regular professional cleanings
Answer: C: Avoiding unnecessary radiation exposure

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51. Common Giant Cell Lesion
What is a common type of giant cell lesion in the jaw?
A: Central giant cell granuloma
B: Fibrous dysplasia
C: Ameloblastoma
D: Osteosarcoma
Answer: A: Central giant cell granuloma

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52. Radiographic Appearance of Giant Cell Lesions
What is the typical radiographic appearance of giant cell lesions of the jaw?
A: Multilocular radiolucency
B: Radiopaque lesions
C: Ground glass appearance
D: Well-defined radiolucency
Answer: A: Multilocular radiolucency

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53. Histopathological Feature of Giant Cell Lesions
Which histopathological feature is characteristic of giant cell lesions of the jaw?
A: Multinucleated giant cells
B: Fibrous tissue
C: Necrotic bone
D: Pseudocysts
Answer: A: Multinucleated giant cells

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54. Initial Management of Giant Cell Lesions
What is the initial management approach for giant cell lesions of the jaw?
A: Observation and monitoring
B: Immediate surgical resection
C: Chemotherapy
D: Radiation therapy
Answer: A: Observation and monitoring

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55. Role of Surgery in Giant Cell Lesions
When is surgical intervention indicated for giant cell lesions of the jaw?
A: Only in all cases
B: When there is significant functional or cosmetic deformity
C: As the first line of treatment
D: For diagnosis confirmation
Answer: B: When there is significant functional or cosmetic deformity

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56. Recurrence of Giant Cell Lesions
What is a common issue with giant cell lesions of the jaw?
A: High recurrence rate
B: Low recurrence rate
C: No risk of recurrence
D: Always malignant
Answer: A: High recurrence rate

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57. Differential Diagnosis of Giant Cell Lesions
Which condition should be included in the differential diagnosis of giant cell lesions?
A: Osteosarcoma
B: Ameloblastoma
C: Fibrous dysplasia
D: All of the above
Answer: D: All of the above

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58. Systemic Conditions Associated with Giant Cell Lesions
Which systemic condition can be associated with giant cell lesions of the jaw?
A: Asthma
B: Diabetes
C: Hypertension
D: Hyperparathyroidism
Answer: D: Hyperparathyroidism

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59. Prognosis of Giant Cell Lesions
What is the prognosis for most patients with giant cell lesions of the jaw?
A: Poor
B: Fair to good with appropriate management
C: Excellent without any treatment
D: It always leads to malignancy
Answer: B: Fair to good with appropriate management

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60. Adjunctive Therapy for Giant Cell Lesions
What adjunctive therapy may be used in the management of giant cell lesions of the jaw?
A: Antivirals
B: Antibiotics
C: Antifungals
D: Corticosteroids
Answer: D: Corticosteroids

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61. Genetic Basis of Cherubism
What genetic mutation is associated with cherubism?
A: SH3BP2 gene mutation
B: TP53 gene mutation
C: BRCA1 gene mutation
D: RB1 gene mutation
Answer: A: SH3BP2 gene mutation

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62. Clinical Feature of Cherubism
What is a clinical feature of cherubism?
A: Pigmented lesions
B: Unilateral maxillary swelling
C: Bilateral mandibular swelling
D: Oral ulcerations
Answer: C: Bilateral mandibular swelling

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63. Age of Onset for Cherubism
At what age does cherubism typically present?
A: Early childhood
B: Adolescence
C: Adulthood
D: Infancy
Answer: A: Early childhood

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64. Radiographic Appearance of Cherubism
What is a characteristic radiographic appearance of cherubism?
A: Well-defined radiolucency
B: Ground glass appearance
C: Radiopaque lesions
D: Multilocular radiolucencies
Answer: D: Multilocular radiolucencies

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65. Initial Management of Cherubism
What is the initial management approach for cherubism?
A: Immediate surgery
B: Observation and monitoring
C: Chemotherapy
D: Radiation therapy
Answer: B: Observation and monitoring

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66. Complication of Cherubism
What is a common complication of cherubism?
A: Severe pain
B: Tooth discoloration
C: Gingival bleeding
D: Malocclusion
Answer: D: Malocclusion

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67. Role of Genetic Counseling
Why is genetic counseling important in cherubism?
A: To provide dietary recommendations
B: To inform patients and families about the hereditary nature and implications
C: To focus on pain management
D: To enhance tooth color
Answer: B: To inform patients and families about the hereditary nature and implications

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68. Prognosis of Cherubism
What is the prognosis for most patients with cherubism?
A: Lesions often stabilize or regress after puberty
B: It always progresses to malignancy
C: It remains unchanged throughout life
D: It always resolves spontaneously in infancy
Answer: A: Lesions often stabilize or regress after puberty

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69. Surgical Intervention for Cherubism
When is surgical intervention considered for cherubism?
A: When there is significant functional or cosmetic deformity
B: In all cases
C: As the first line of treatment
D: For diagnosis confirmation
Answer: A: When there is significant functional or cosmetic deformity

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70. Clinical Monitoring in Cherubism
Why is clinical monitoring important in cherubism?
A: To diagnose dental caries
B: To improve tooth color
C: To assess the progression of the condition and plan for potential interventions
D: To monitor for oral infections
Answer: C: To assess the progression of the condition and plan for potential interventions

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71. Characteristic Feature of Ameloblastoma
What is a characteristic feature of an ameloblastoma?
A: Painless white patches
B: Rapid metastasis
C: Spontaneous regression
D: Locally aggressive behavior
Answer: D: Locally aggressive behavior

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72. Radiographic Appearance of Ameloblastoma
What is a typical radiographic appearance of an ameloblastoma?
A: Ground glass appearance
B: Radiopaque lesions
C: Multilocular radiolucency
D: Well-defined radiolucency
Answer: C: Multilocular radiolucency

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73. Initial Management of Ameloblastoma
What is the initial management approach for an ameloblastoma?
A: Radiation therapy
B: Observation and monitoring
C: Chemotherapy
D: Surgical resection with wide margins
Answer: D: Surgical resection with wide margins

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74. Histopathological Feature of Ameloblastoma
Which histopathological feature is characteristic of ameloblastoma?
A: Necrotic bone
B: Multinucleated giant cells
C: Islands of odontogenic epithelium
D: Pseudocysts
Answer: C: Islands of odontogenic epithelium

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75. Recurrence Rate of Ameloblastoma
What is a common issue with ameloblastomas after treatment?
A: Always malignant
B: Low recurrence rate
C: No risk of recurrence
D: High recurrence rate
Answer: D: High recurrence rate

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76. Prognosis of Ameloblastoma
What factor most significantly affects the prognosis of ameloblastoma?
A: Complete surgical resection with clear margins
B: Tooth color
C: Frequency of dental cleanings
D: Type of toothbrush used
Answer: A: Complete surgical resection with clear margins

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77. Differential Diagnosis of Ameloblastoma
Which condition should be included in the differential diagnosis of ameloblastoma?
A: Central giant cell granuloma
B: Osteosarcoma
C: Fibrous dysplasia
D: All of the above
Answer: D: All of the above

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78. Complication of Ameloblastoma
What is a common complication of untreated ameloblastoma?
A: Pathologic fractures
B: Increased tooth mobility
C: Oral candidiasis
D: Geographic tongue
Answer: A: Pathologic fractures

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79. Adjunctive Therapy for Ameloblastoma
What adjunctive therapy may be used in the management of ameloblastoma?
A: None, surgical resection is primary
B: Antibiotics
C: Antifungals
D: Antivirals
Answer: A: None, surgical resection is primary

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80. Long-Term Follow-Up for Ameloblastoma
Why is long-term follow-up important in patients treated for ameloblastoma?
A: To monitor for oral infections
B: To improve tooth color
C: To diagnose dental caries
D: To monitor for recurrence
Answer: D: To monitor for recurrence

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81. Characteristic Feature of Central Giant Cell Granuloma
What is a characteristic feature of central giant cell granuloma (CGCG)?
A: Ground glass appearance
B: Radiopaque lesions
C: Multinucleated giant cells in a vascular stroma
D: Painless white patches
Answer: C: Multinucleated giant cells in a vascular stroma

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82. Radiographic Appearance of CGCG
What is the typical radiographic appearance of CGCG?
A: Well-defined radiolucency
B: Radiopaque lesions
C: Ground glass appearance
D: Multilocular radiolucency
Answer: D: Multilocular radiolucency

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83. Initial Management of CGCG
What is the initial management approach for CGCG?
A: Surgical curettage
B: Observation and monitoring
C: Chemotherapy
D: Radiation therapy
Answer: A: Surgical curettage

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84. Histopathological Feature of CGCG
Which histopathological feature is characteristic of CGCG?
A: Multinucleated giant cells in a fibrous stroma
B: Islands of odontogenic epithelium
C: Necrotic bone
D: Pseudocysts
Answer: A: Multinucleated giant cells in a fibrous stroma

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85. Differential Diagnosis of CGCG
Which condition should be included in the differential diagnosis of CGCG?
A: Ameloblastoma
B: Osteosarcoma
C: Fibrous dysplasia
D: All of the above
Answer: D: All of the above

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86. Recurrence Rate of CGCG
What is a common issue with CGCG after treatment?
A: Low recurrence rate
B: High recurrence rate
C: No risk of recurrence
D: Always malignant
Answer: B: High recurrence rate

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87. Role of Intralesional Steroids in CGCG
What role do intralesional steroids play in the treatment of CGCG?
A: They are used only for pain management
B: They are the primary treatment
C: They may reduce lesion size and recurrence
D: They have no role
Answer: C: They may reduce lesion size and recurrence

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88. Systemic Conditions Associated with CGCG
Which systemic condition can be associated with CGCG?
A: Hypertension
B: Diabetes
C: Hyperparathyroidism
D: Asthma
Answer: C: Hyperparathyroidism

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89. Complication of Untreated CGCG
What is a common complication of untreated CGCG?
A: Pathologic fractures
B: Increased tooth mobility
C: Oral candidiasis
D: Geographic tongue
Answer: A: Pathologic fractures

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90. Prognosis of CGCG
What is the prognosis for most patients with CGCG?
A: Fair to good with appropriate management
B: Poor
C: Excellent without any treatment
D: It always leads to malignancy
Answer: A: Fair to good with appropriate management

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91. Characteristic Radiographic Feature of Cementoblastoma
What is a characteristic radiographic feature of cementoblastoma?
A: Radiopaque mass attached to the root of a tooth
B: Multilocular radiolucency
C: Ground glass appearance
D: Well-defined radiolucency
Answer: A: Radiopaque mass attached to the root of a tooth

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92. Common Symptom of Cementoblastoma
What is a common symptom of cementoblastoma?
A: Gingival bleeding
B: Tooth discoloration
C: Pain and swelling
D: Halitosis
Answer: C: Pain and swelling

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93. Diagnosis of Cementoblastoma
How is cementoblastoma typically diagnosed?
A: Biopsy
B: Blood tests
C: Saliva tests
D: Clinical examination and radiographic findings
Answer: D: Clinical examination and radiographic findings

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94. Initial Management of Cementoblastoma
What is the initial management approach for cementoblastoma?
A: Surgical excision of the lesion and affected tooth
B: Observation and monitoring
C: Chemotherapy
D: Radiation therapy
Answer: A: Surgical excision of the lesion and affected tooth

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95. Histopathological Feature of Cementoblastoma
Which histopathological feature is characteristic of cementoblastoma?
A: Cementum-like material with a radiating pattern
B: Multinucleated giant cells
C: Necrotic bone
D: Pseudocysts
Answer: A: Cementum-like material with a radiating pattern

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96. Differential Diagnosis of Cementoblastoma
Which condition should be included in the differential diagnosis of cementoblastoma?
A: Ameloblastoma
B: Osteosarcoma
C: Periapical cemental dysplasia
D: All of the above
Answer: D: All of the above

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97. Recurrence Rate of Cementoblastoma
What is a common issue with cementoblastoma after treatment?
A: Low recurrence rate
B: High recurrence rate
C: No risk of recurrence
D: Always malignant
Answer: A: Low recurrence rate

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98. Prognosis of Cementoblastoma
What factor most significantly affects the prognosis of cementoblastoma?
A: Complete surgical excision
B: Tooth color
C: Frequency of dental cleanings
D: Type of toothbrush used
Answer: A: Complete surgical excision

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99. Complication of Untreated Cementoblastoma
What is a common complication of untreated cementoblastoma?
A: Geographic tongue
B: Increased tooth mobility
C: Oral candidiasis
D: Pathologic fractures
Answer: D: Pathologic fractures

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100. Role of Follow-Up in Cementoblastoma
Why is follow-up important in patients treated for cementoblastoma?
A: To monitor for recurrence
B: To improve tooth color
C: To diagnose dental caries
D: To monitor for oral infections
Answer: A: To monitor for recurrence

101. Characteristic Feature of Ossifying Fibroma
What is a characteristic feature of ossifying fibroma of the jaw?
A: Diffuse radiolucency
B: Ground glass appearance
C: Well-circumscribed radiolucent to radiopaque lesion
D: Multilocular radiolucency
Answer: C: Well-circumscribed radiolucent to radiopaque lesion

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102. Common Symptom of Ossifying Fibroma
What is a common symptom of ossifying fibroma of the jaw?
A: Painless swelling
B: Severe pain
C: Gingival bleeding
D: Tooth mobility
Answer: A: Painless swelling

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103. Diagnosis of Ossifying Fibroma
How is ossifying fibroma typically diagnosed?
A: Biopsy
B: Blood tests
C: Saliva tests
D: Clinical examination and radiographic findings
Answer: D: Clinical examination and radiographic findings

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104. Initial Management of Ossifying Fibroma
What is the initial management approach for ossifying fibroma of the jaw?
A: Radiation therapy
B: Observation and monitoring
C: Chemotherapy
D: Surgical excision
Answer: D: Surgical excision

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105. Histopathological Feature of Ossifying Fibroma
Which histopathological feature is characteristic of ossifying fibroma?
A: Fibrous stroma with calcified material
B: Multinucleated giant cells
C: Necrotic bone
D: Pseudocysts
Answer: A: Fibrous stroma with calcified material

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106. Differential Diagnosis of Ossifying Fibroma
Which condition should be included in the differential diagnosis of ossifying fibroma?
A: Ameloblastoma
B: Osteosarcoma
C: Fibrous dysplasia
D: All of the above
Answer: D: All of the above

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107. Recurrence Rate of Ossifying Fibroma
What is a common issue with ossifying fibroma after treatment?
A: Low recurrence rate
B: High recurrence rate
C: No risk of recurrence
D: Always malignant
Answer: A: Low recurrence rate

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108. Prognosis of Ossifying Fibroma
What factor most significantly affects the prognosis of ossifying fibroma?
A: Smoking
B: Drinking Alcohol
C: Frequency of dental cleanings
D: Complete surgical excision
Answer: D: Complete surgical excision

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109. Complication of Untreated Ossifying Fibroma
What is a common complication of untreated ossifying fibroma of the jaw?
A: Geographic tongue
B: Increased tooth mobility
C: Oral candidiasis
D: Pathologic fractures
Answer: D: Pathologic fractures

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110. Role of Follow-Up in Ossifying Fibroma
Why is follow-up important in patients treated for ossifying fibroma?
A: To monitor for recurrence
B: To improve tooth color
C: To diagnose dental caries
D: To monitor for oral infections
Answer: A: To monitor for recurrence

‍

111. Common Type of Jaw Cyst
What is the most common type of jaw cyst?
A: Thyroglossal duct cyst
B: Nasolabial cyst
C: Radicular cyst
D: Epidermoid cyst
Answer: C: Radicular cyst

‍

112. Characteristic Feature of Jaw Cysts
What is a characteristic feature of jaw cysts on radiographs?
A: Ground glass appearance
B: Onion skin periosteal reaction on radiographs
C: Well-defined radiolucency
D: Multilocular radiolucency
Answer: C: Well-defined radiolucency

‍

113. Common Symptom of Jaw Cysts
What is a common symptom of jaw cysts?
A: Painless swelling
B: Severe pain
C: Gingival bleeding
D: Tooth mobility
Answer: A: Painless swelling

‍

114. Diagnosis of Jaw Cysts
How are jaw cysts typically diagnosed?
A: Biopsy
B: Blood tests
C: Saliva tests
D: Clinical examination and radiographic findings
Answer: D: Clinical examination and radiographic findings

‍

115. Initial Management of Jaw Cysts
What is the initial management approach for jaw cysts?
A: Chemotherapy
B: Observation and monitoring
C: Surgical enucleation
D: Radiation therapy
Answer: C: Surgical enucleation

‍

116. Histopathological Feature of Jaw Cysts
Which histopathological feature is characteristic of jaw cysts?
A: Multinucleated giant cells
B: Epithelial lining with cystic fluid
C: Necrotic bone
D: Pseudocysts
Answer: B: Epithelial lining with cystic fluid

‍

117. Differential Diagnosis of Jaw Cysts
Which condition should be included in the differential diagnosis of jaw cysts?
A: Ameloblastoma
B: Osteosarcoma
C: Fibrous dysplasia
D: All of the above
Answer: D: All of the above

‍

118. Recurrence Rate of Jaw Cysts
What is a common issue with jaw cysts after treatment?
A: Low recurrence rate
B: High recurrence rate
C: No risk of recurrence
D: Always malignant
Answer: A: Low recurrence rate

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119. Prognosis of Jaw Cysts
What factor most significantly affects the prognosis of jaw cysts?
A: Complete surgical excision
B: Tooth color
C: Frequency of dental cleanings
D: Type of toothbrush used
Answer: A: Complete surgical excision

‍

120. Complication of Untreated Jaw Cysts
What is a common complication of untreated jaw cysts?
A: Pathologic fractures
B: Increased tooth mobility
C: Oral candidiasis
D: Geographic tongue
Answer: A: Pathologic fractures

‍

121. Characteristic Feature of Odontogenic Keratocyst
What is a characteristic feature of odontogenic keratocyst?
A: Multilocular radiolucency
B: Radiopaque lesions
C: Ground glass appearance
D: Parakeratinized epithelial lining
Answer: D: Parakeratinized epithelial lining

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122. Radiographic Appearance of Odontogenic Keratocyst
What is the typical radiographic appearance of an odontogenic keratocyst?
A: Well-defined radiopacity
B: Well-defined radiolucency with smooth borders
C: Ground glass appearance
D: Onion skin periosteal reaction on radiographs
Answer: B: Well-defined radiolucency with smooth borders

‍

123. Common Symptom of Odontogenic Keratocyst
What is a common symptom of an odontogenic keratocyst?
A: Painless swelling
B: Severe pain
C: Gingival bleeding
D: Tooth mobility
Answer: A: Painless swelling

‍

124. Diagnosis of Odontogenic Keratocyst
How is an odontogenic keratocyst typically diagnosed?
A: Biopsy
B: Blood tests
C: Saliva tests
D: Clinical examination and radiographic findings
Answer: D: Clinical examination and radiographic findings

‍

125. Initial Management of Odontogenic Keratocyst
What is the initial management approach for an odontogenic keratocyst?
A: Radiation therapy
B: Observation and monitoring
C: Chemotherapy
D: Surgical enucleation and curettage
Answer: D: Surgical enucleation and curettage

‍

126. Histopathological Feature of Odontogenic Keratocyst
Which histopathological feature is characteristic of odontogenic keratocyst?
A: Multinucleated giant cells
B: Keratinized epithelial lining
C: Necrotic bone
D: Pseudocysts
Answer: B: Keratinized epithelial lining

‍

127. Differential Diagnosis of Odontogenic Keratocyst
Which condition should be included in the differential diagnosis of odontogenic keratocyst?
A: Ameloblastoma
B: Osteosarcoma
C: Fibrous dysplasia
D: All of the above
Answer: D: All of the above

‍

128. Recurrence Rate of Odontogenic Keratocyst
What is a common issue with odontogenic keratocyst after treatment?
A: No risk of recurrence
B: Low recurrence rate
C: High recurrence rate
D: Always malignant
Answer: C: High recurrence rate

‍

129. Prognosis of Odontogenic Keratocyst
What factor most significantly affects the prognosis of odontogenic keratocyst?
A: Complete surgical excision
B: Tooth color
C: Frequency of dental cleanings
D: Type of toothbrush used
Answer: A: Complete surgical excision

‍

130. Complication of Untreated Odontogenic Keratocyst
What is a common complication of untreated odontogenic keratocyst?
A: Oral candidiasis
B: Increased tooth mobility
C: Pathologic fractures
D: Geographic tongue
Answer: C: Pathologic fractures

‍

131. Characteristic Feature of Paget's Disease
What is a characteristic feature of Paget's disease of the jaw?
A: Ground glass appearance
B: Onion skin periosteal reaction on radiographs
C: Cotton wool appearance on radiographs
D: Multilocular radiolucency
Answer: C: Cotton wool appearance on radiographs

‍

132. Common Symptom of Paget's Disease
What is a common symptom of Paget's disease of the jaw?
A: Bone pain
B: Tooth mobility
C: Gingival bleeding
D: Halitosis
Answer: A: Bone pain

‍

133. Diagnosis of Paget's Disease
How is Paget's disease of the jaw typically diagnosed?
A: Clinical examination and radiographic findings
B: Blood tests for alkaline phosphatase levels
C: Saliva tests
D: Biopsy
Answer: B: Blood tests for alkaline phosphatase levels

‍

134. Initial Management of Paget's Disease
What is the initial management approach for Paget's disease of the jaw?
A: Radiation therapy
B: Observation and monitoring
C: Chemotherapy
D: Bisphosphonate therapy
Answer: D: Bisphosphonate therapy

‍

135. Complication of Paget's Disease
What is a common complication of Paget's disease of the jaw?
A: Oral candidiasis
B: Increased tooth mobility
C: Pathologic fractures
D: Geographic tongue
Answer: C: Pathologic fractures

‍

136. Role of Bisphosphonates in Paget's Disease
What role do bisphosphonates play in the management of Paget's disease?
A: They are the primary treatment
B: They have no role
C: They are used only for pain management
D: They help to reduce bone turnover and relieve symptoms
Answer: D: They help to reduce bone turnover and relieve symptoms

‍

137. Radiographic Monitoring in Paget's Disease
Why is radiographic monitoring important in Paget's disease of the jaw?
A: To assess the progression of the disease and detect complications
B: To detect periodontitis
C: To diagnose dental caries
D: To monitor for oral infections
Answer: A: To assess the progression of the disease and detect complications

‍

138. Prognosis of Paget's Disease
What is the general prognosis for patients with Paget's disease of the jaw?
A: Excellent without any treatment
B: Poor
C: Fair to good with appropriate management
D: It always leads to malignancy
Answer: C: Fair to good with appropriate management

‍

139. Differential Diagnosis of Paget's Disease
Which condition should be included in the differential diagnosis of Paget's disease?
A: Fibrous dysplasia
B: Osteosarcoma
C: Osteomyelitis
D: All of the above
Answer: D: All of the above

‍

140. Histopathological Feature of Paget's Disease
Which histopathological feature is characteristic of Paget's disease?
A: Pseudocysts
B: Multinucleated giant cells
C: Necrotic bone
D:  Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone
Answer: D: Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone

‍

141. Characteristic Feature of Fibrosarcoma
What is a characteristic feature of fibrosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Tooth discoloration
B: Rapidly growing mass
C: Mild discomfort
D: Tooth mobility
Answer: B: Rapidly growing mass

‍

142. Radiographic Appearance of Fibrosarcoma
What is a typical radiographic appearance of fibrosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Ground glass appearance
B: Radiopaque lesions
C: Ill-defined radiolucency
D: Well-defined radiolucency
Answer: C: Ill-defined radiolucency

‍

143. Histopathological Feature of Fibrosarcoma
Which histopathological feature is characteristic of fibrosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Spindle-shaped fibroblastic cells
B: Multinucleated giant cells
C: Necrotic bone
D: Pseudocysts
Answer: A: Spindle-shaped fibroblastic cells

‍

144. Primary Treatment for Fibrosarcoma
What is the primary treatment for fibrosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Observation
B: Chemotherapy alone
C: Radiation therapy alone
D: Surgical resection with wide margins
Answer: D: Surgical resection with wide margins

‍

145. Risk Factor for Fibrosarcoma
Which of the following is a risk factor for developing fibrosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Frequent dental visits
B: Dental caries
C: Tobacco use
D: Prior radiation therapy
Answer: D: Prior radiation therapy

‍

146. Common Symptom of Advanced Fibrosarcoma
What is a common symptom of advanced fibrosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Gingival bleeding
B: Painless, mobile mass
C: Severe pain and swelling
D: Tooth mobility
Answer: C: Severe pain and swelling

‍

147. Prognosis of Fibrosarcoma
What factor most significantly affects the prognosis of fibrosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Early detection and complete surgical resection
B: Tooth color
C: Frequency of dental cleanings
D: Type of toothbrush used
Answer: A: Early detection and complete surgical resection

‍

148. Role of Chemotherapy in Fibrosarcoma
What is the role of chemotherapy in the treatment of fibrosarcoma of the jaw?
A: It is not used
B: It is the sole treatment
C: It is used as an adjunct to surgery to control systemic disease
D: It is used for pain management only
Answer: C: It is used as an adjunct to surgery to control systemic disease

‍

149. Radiographic Follow-Up in Fibrosarcoma
Why is radiographic follow-up important in patients treated for fibrosarcoma of the jaw?
A: To diagnose dental caries
B: To improve tooth color
C: To monitor for recurrence and metastasis
D: To monitor for oral infections
Answer: C: To monitor for recurrence and metastasis

‍

150. Complication of Fibrosarcoma
What is a common complication of fibrosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Geographic tongue
B: Increased tooth mobility
C: Oral candidiasis
D: Pathologic fractures
Answer: D: Pathologic fractures

‍

151. Characteristic Feature of Ewing's Sarcoma
What is a characteristic feature of Ewing's sarcoma of the jaw?
A: Ground glass appearance
B: Cotton wool appearance on radiographs
C: Onion skin periosteal reaction on radiographs
D: Well-defined radiolucency
Answer: C: Onion skin periosteal reaction on radiographs

‍

152. Common Symptom of Ewing's Sarcoma
What is a common symptom of Ewing's sarcoma of the jaw?
A: Tooth decay
B: Pain and swelling
C: Gingival bleeding
D: Periodontitis
Answer: A: Pain and swelling

‍

153. Diagnosis of Ewing's Sarcoma
How is Ewing's sarcoma of the jaw typically diagnosed?
A: Clinical examination and radiographic findings
B: Blood tests
C: Saliva tests
D: Biopsy
Answer: D: Biopsy

‍

154. Primary Treatment for Ewing's Sarcoma
What is the primary treatment for Ewing's sarcoma of the jaw?
A: Chemotherapy alone
B: Surgical therapy
C: Radiation therapy alone
D: Multimodal therapy including surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation
Answer: D: Multimodal therapy including surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation

‍

155. Risk Factor for Ewing's Sarcoma
Which of the following is a risk factor for developing Ewing's sarcoma of the jaw?
A: Marijuana consumption
B: Tobacco use
C: Bisphosphonate treatment
D: Genetic predisposition
Answer: D: Genetic predisposition

‍

156. Prognosis of Ewing's Sarcoma
What factor most significantly affects the prognosis of Ewing's sarcoma of the jaw?
A: Type of toothbrush used
B: Periodontal probing
C: Bisphosphonate treatment
D: Early detection and multimodal treatment
Answer: D: Early detection and multimodal treatment

‍

157. Complication of Ewing's Sarcoma
What is a common complication of untreated Ewing's sarcoma of the jaw?
A: Pathologic fractures
B: Increased tooth mobility
C: Chronic periodontitis
D: Tinnitus
Answer: A: Pathologic fractures

‍

158. Role of Chemotherapy in Ewing's Sarcoma
What is the role of chemotherapy in the treatment of Ewing's sarcoma of the jaw?
A: It is not used
B: It is the sole treatment
C: It is used as an adjunct to surgery and radiation to control systemic disease
D: It is used for pain management only
Answer: C: It is used as an adjunct to surgery and radiation to control systemic disease

‍

159. Radiographic Follow-Up in Ewing's Sarcoma
Why is radiographic follow-up important in patients treated for Ewing's sarcoma of the jaw?
A: To diagnose dental caries
B: To improve tooth color
C: To monitor for recurrence and metastasis
D: To monitor for oral infections
Answer: C: To monitor for recurrence and metastasis

‍

160. Histopathological Feature of Ewing's Sarcoma
Which histopathological feature is characteristic of Ewing's sarcoma of the jaw?
A: Small round blue cells
B: Multinucleated giant cells
C: Necrotic bone
D: Pseudocysts
Answer: A: Small round blue cells

‍

161. Common Primary Sites for Metastatic Lesions to the Jaw
What are common primary sites for metastatic lesions to the jaw?
A: Skin, eye, and kidney
B: Breast, lung, and prostate
C: Heart, liver, and spleen
D: Stomach, pancreas, and intestine
Answer: B: Breast, lung, and prostate

‍

162. Radiographic Appearance of Metastatic Lesions
What is a typical radiographic appearance of metastatic lesions to the jaw?
A: Ground glass appearance
B: Radiopaque lesions
C: Ill-defined radiolucency
D: Well-defined radiolucency
Answer: C: Ill-defined radiolucency

‍

163. Common Symptom of Metastatic Lesions
What is a common symptom of metastatic lesions to the jaw?
A: Halitosis
B: Tingling and Numbness
C: Gingival bleeding
D: Pain and swelling
Answer: D: Pain and swelling

‍

164. Diagnosis of Metastatic Lesions
How are metastatic lesions to the jaw typically diagnosed?
A: Ultrasound
B: Blood tests
C: Saliva tests
D: Clinical examination, radiographic findings, and biopsy
Answer: D: Clinical examination, radiographic findings, and biopsy

‍

165. Primary Treatment for Metastatic Lesions
What is the primary treatment approach for metastatic lesions to the jaw?
A: Observation
B: Chemotherapy alone
C: Radiation therapy alone
D: Treatment of the primary tumor and supportive care
Answer: D: Treatment of the primary tumor and supportive care

‍

166. Prognosis of Metastatic Lesions
What factor most significantly affects the prognosis of metastatic lesions to the jaw?
A: Control of the primary tumor
B: Tooth color
C: Frequency of dental cleanings
D: Type of toothbrush used
Answer: A: Control of the primary tumor

‍

167. Common Primary Tumors Metastasizing to the Jaw
Which primary tumors commonly metastasize to the jaw?
A: Breast cancer, lung cancer, prostate cancer
B: Skin cancer, brain cancer, kidney cancer
C: Heart cancer, liver cancer, spleen cancer
D: Stomach cancer, pancreas cancer, intestine cancer
Answer: A: Breast cancer, lung cancer, prostate cancer

‍

168. Histopathological Feature of Metastatic Lesions
Which histopathological feature is characteristic of metastatic lesions to the jaw?
A: Multinucleated giant cells
B: Cells resembling those of the primary tumor
C: Necrotic bone
D: Pseudocysts
Answer: B: Cells resembling those of the primary tumor

‍

169. Role of Radiographic Follow-Up in Metastatic Lesions
Why is radiographic follow-up important in patients with metastatic lesions to the jaw?
A: To monitor for oral infections
B: To improve tooth color
C: To diagnose dental caries
D: To monitor for progression and response to treatment
Answer: D: To monitor for progression and response to treatment

‍

170. Common Complication of Metastatic Lesions
What is a common complication of metastatic lesions to the jaw?
A: Pathologic fractures
B: Increased tooth mobility
C: Oral candidiasis
D: Geographic tongue
Answer: A: Pathologic fractures

‍

171. Characteristic Feature of Chondrosarcoma
What is a characteristic feature of chondrosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Painless white patches
B: Rapid metastasis
C: Spontaneous regression
D: Cartilage-forming tumor
Answer: D: Cartilage-forming tumor

‍

172. Radiographic Appearance of Chondrosarcoma
What is a typical radiographic appearance of chondrosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Ground glass appearance
B: Radiopaque lesions
C: Ill-defined radiolucency with areas of calcification
D: Well-defined radiolucency
Answer: C: Ill-defined radiolucency with areas of calcification

‍

173. Common Symptom of Chondrosarcoma
What is a common symptom of chondrosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Recurrent mouth ulcers
B: Hypersalivation
C: Chronic Dry Mouth
D: Pain and swelling
Answer: D: Pain and swelling

‍

174. Diagnosis of Chondrosarcoma
How is chondrosarcoma of the jaw typically diagnosed?
A: Ultrasound
B: Blood tests
C: Saliva tests
D: Clinical examination, radiographic findings, and biopsy
Answer: D: Clinical examination, radiographic findings, and biopsy

‍

175. Primary Treatment for Chondrosarcoma
What is the primary treatment approach for chondrosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Radiation therapy alone
B: Chemotherapy alone
C: Surgical resection with wide margins
D: Observation
Answer: C: Surgical resection with wide margins

‍

176. Prognosis of Chondrosarcoma
What factor most significantly affects the prognosis of chondrosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Age of Patient
B: Size of Tumor
C: Complete surgical resection
D: Tumor Locaion
Answer: A: Complete surgical resection

‍

177. Histopathological Feature of Chondrosarcoma
Which histopathological feature is characteristic of chondrosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Cartilage-producing cells
B: Osteoid-producing cells
C: Fibrous tissue proliferation
D: Keratin pearls
Answer: A: Cartilage-producing cells

‍

178. Role of Radiographic Follow-Up in Chondrosarcoma
Why is radiographic follow-up important in patients treated for chondrosarcoma of the jaw?
A: To assess bone density
B: To evaluate changes in bite alignment
C: To monitor for recurrence and metastasis
D: To monitor for oral infections
Answer: C: To monitor for recurrence and metastasis

‍

179. Differential Diagnosis of Chondrosarcoma
Which condition should be included in the differential diagnosis of chondrosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Osteosarcoma
B: Ameloblastoma
C: Fibrous dysplasia
D: All of the above
Answer: D: All of the above

‍

180. Common Complication of Chondrosarcoma
What is a common complication of chondrosarcoma of the jaw?
A: Pathologic fractures
B: Increased oral infections
C: Bite Alignment
D: Fibrous dysplasia
Answer: A: Pathologic fractures

Non-Odontogenic Tumors of the Jaw: Diagnosis and Management

‍

181. Common Non-Odontogenic Tumor
What is a common non-odontogenic tumor of the jaw?
A: Osteosarcoma
B: Ameloblastoma
C: Fibrous dysplasia
D: All of the above
Answer: D: All of the above

‍

182. Radiographic Appearance of Non-Odontogenic Tumors
What is the typical radiographic appearance of non-odontogenic tumors of the jaw?
A: Ground glass appearance
B: Radiopaque lesions
C: Ill-defined radiolucency
D: Well-defined radiolucency
Answer: C: Ill-defined radiolucency

‍

183. Common Symptom of Non-Odontogenic Tumors
What is a common symptom of non-odontogenic tumors of the jaw?
A: Loose teeth
B: Difficulty chewing
C: Chronic sinus infections
D: Pain and Swelling
Answer: A: Pain and swelling

‍

184. Diagnosis of Non-Odontogenic Tumors
How are non-odontogenic tumors of the jaw typically diagnosed?
A: Saliva tests
B: Blood tests
C: Clinical examination, radiographic findings, and biopsy
D: Ultrasound
Answer: C: Clinical examination, radiographic findings, and biopsy

‍

185. Primary Treatment for Non-Odontogenic Tumors
What is the primary treatment approach for non-odontogenic tumors of the jaw?
A: Observation
B: Chemotherapy alone
C: Radiation therapy alone
D: Surgical resection
Answer: D: Surgical resection

‍

186. Prognosis of Non-Odontogenic Tumors
What factor most significantly affects the prognosis of non-odontogenic tumors of the jaw?
A: Presence of systemic diseases
B: Tumor grade and stage
C: Patient's age
D: Complete surgical resection
Answer: D: Complete surgical resection

‍

187. Histopathological Feature of Non-Odontogenic Tumors
Which histopathological feature is characteristic of non-odontogenic tumors of the jaw?
A: Pseudocysts
B: Multinucleated giant cells
C: Necrotic bone
D: Cells resembling those of the primary tumor
Answer: D: Cells resembling those of the primary tumor

‍

188. Role of Radiographic Follow-Up in Non-Odontogenic Tumors
Why is radiographic follow-up important in patients with non-odontogenic tumors of the jaw?
A: To monitor for recurrence and metastasis
B: To improve tooth color
C: To diagnose dental caries
D: To monitor for oral infections
Answer: A: To monitor for recurrence and metastasis

‍

189. Differential Diagnosis of Non-Odontogenic Tumors
Which condition should be included in the differential diagnosis of non-odontogenic tumors of the jaw?
A: Osteosarcoma
B: Ameloblastoma
C: Fibrous dysplasia
D: All of the above
Answer: D: All of the above

‍

190. Common Complication of Non-Odontogenic Tumors
What is a common complication of non-odontogenic tumors of the jaw?
A: Pathologic fractures
B: Chronic sinusitis
C: Nerve compression
D: Dental abscesses
Answer: A: Pathologic fractures

‍

191. Common Presentation
Which clinical presentation is most commonly associated with bone marrow pathology in the jaw?
A: Persistent jaw pain
B: Swelling and bruising of the gums
C: Asymptomatic radiolucencies
D: Rapid tooth movement
Answer: C: Asymptomatic radiolucencies

‍

192. Diagnostic Tool
What is the most definitive diagnostic tool for bone marrow pathology involving the jaw?
A: Panoramic radiography
B: Cone-beam computed tomography (CBCT)
C: Bone marrow biopsy
D: MRI
Answer: C: Bone marrow biopsy

‍

193. Initial Symptom
What is often the first clinical symptom of bone marrow pathology in the jaw?
A: Difficulty chewing
B: Unexplained dental pain
C: Spontaneous gingival bleeding
D: Mobile teeth
Answer: B: Unexplained dental pain

‍

194. Associated Conditions
Which systemic condition is frequently associated with jaw involvement in bone marrow pathology?
A: Osteoporosis
B: Leukemia
C: Hyperparathyroidism
D: Diabetes mellitus
Answer: B: Leukemia

‍

195. Radiographic Appearance
How does bone marrow pathology typically appear on a radiograph?
A: Well-defined radiopaque lesions
B: Mixed radiolucent-radiopaque lesions
C: Diffuse radiolucent areas
D: Cotton wool appearance
Answer: C: Diffuse radiolucent areas

‍

196. Histopathological Feature
Which histopathological feature is indicative of bone marrow pathology in the jaw?
A: Hypercellularity with abnormal hematopoiesis
B: Dense fibrous connective tissue
C: Normal marrow with occasional giant cells
D: Epithelial dysplasia
Answer: A: Hypercellularity with abnormal hematopoiesis

‍

197. Treatment Approach
What is the primary treatment approach for bone marrow pathology involving the jaw?
A: Surgical resection
B: Chemotherapy
C: Antibiotic therapy
D: Radiation therapy
Answer: B: Chemotherapy

‍

198. Differential Diagnosis
Which condition must be differentiated from bone marrow pathology in the jaw due to similar radiographic findings?
A: Ameloblastoma
B: Osteomyelitis
C: Fibrous dysplasia
D: Langerhans cell histiocytosis
Answer: D: Langerhans cell histiocytosis

‍

199. Prognostic Factor
What is a significant prognostic factor in bone marrow pathology involving the jaw?
A: Size of the lesion
B: Patient age
C: Degree of marrow involvement
D: Presence of systemic symptoms
Answer: C: Degree of marrow involvement

‍

200. Role of Dentist
What is the primary role of a dentist in managing patients with bone marrow pathology in the jaw?
A: Prescribing antibiotics
B: Monitoring and early detection
C: Performing bone marrow biopsies
D: Administering chemotherapy
Answer: B: Monitoring and early detection

201. Most Common Oral Pathology
Which oral pathology is the most prevalent worldwide?
A: Oral cancer
B: Dental caries
C: Periodontitis
D: Oral candidiasis
Answer: B: Dental caries

‍

202. Primary Cause of Gingivitis
What is the primary etiological factor for gingivitis?
A: Bacterial plaque
B: Viral infection
C: Genetic predisposition
D: Nutritional deficiencies
Answer: A: Bacterial plaque

‍

203. Oral Lesions and Systemic Disease
Which systemic disease is most commonly associated with recurrent aphthous ulcers?
A: Diabetes
B: Crohn's disease
C: Hypertension
D: Asthma
Answer: B: Crohn's disease

‍

204. Diagnostic Tool for Oral Pathologies
What is the gold standard diagnostic tool for detecting oral cancers?
A: Visual examination
B: Biopsy
C: Radiography
D: Salivary tests
Answer: B: Biopsy

‍

205. Etiology of Oral Candidiasis
What is the most common cause of oral candidiasis?
A: Candida albicans infection
B: Herpes simplex virus
C: Streptococcus mutans
D: Epstein-Barr virus
Answer: A: Candida albicans infection

‍

206. Risk Factor for Oral Cancer
Which of the following is a significant risk factor for oral cancer?
A: High sugar diet
B: Tobacco use
C: Regular dental check-ups
D: Fluoridated water
Answer: B: Tobacco use

‍

207. Manifestation of Lichen Planus
What is the characteristic clinical manifestation of oral lichen planus?
A: White reticular lesions
B: Erythematous patches
C: Vesicles and pustules
D: Ulcerative nodules
Answer: A: White reticular lesions

‍

208. Oral Manifestation of HIV/AIDS
Which oral condition is most commonly associated with HIV/AIDS?
A: Sialadenitis
B: Leukoplakia
C: Herpangina
D: Kaposi's sarcoma
Answer: D: Kaposi's sarcoma

‍

209. Salivary Gland Disorder
What is the most common benign salivary gland tumor?
A: Mucocele
B: Pleomorphic adenoma
C: Warthin's tumor
D: Sjögren's syndrome
Answer: B: Pleomorphic adenoma

‍

210. Dental Management of Diabetic Patients
What is a key consideration when treating diabetic patients with periodontal disease?
A: Reduced need for local anesthesia
B: Delayed healing response
C: Increased bleeding risk
D: Enhanced resistance to infections
Answer: B: Delayed healing response

‍

211. Early Sign of Oral Cancer
Which symptom is an early indicator of oral cancer?
A: Chronic sore throat
B: Persistent white patches
C: Frequent cavities
D: Recurrent aphthous ulcers
Answer: B: Persistent white patches

‍

212. Risk Factor for Oral Cancer
Which of the following is a major risk factor for developing oral cancer?
A: Frequent consumption of spicy food
B: Tobacco and alcohol use
C: High sugar diet
D: Chronic sinusitis
Answer: B: Tobacco and alcohol use

‍

213. Common Site for Oral Cancer
What is the most common site for oral cancer in the oral cavity?
A: Hard palate
B: Dorsal tongue
C: Floor of the mouth
D: Gingiva
Answer: C: Floor of the mouth

‍

214. HPV-Related Oral Cancer
Which strain of HPV is most commonly associated with oral cancer?
A: HPV 6
B: HPV 11
C: HPV 16
D: HPV 18
Answer: C: HPV 16

‍

215. Biopsy Method
Which biopsy method is most commonly used to diagnose oral cancer?
A: Fine-needle aspiration
B: Excisional biopsy
C: Punch biopsy
D: Brush biopsy
Answer: B: Excisional biopsy

‍

216. Radiotherapy Side Effect
What is a common side effect of radiotherapy in oral cancer patients?
A: Hair loss
B: Mucositis
C: Hypertension
D: Osteoporosis
Answer: B: Mucositis

‍

217. Surgical Treatment
What is the primary goal of surgical treatment for oral cancer?
A: Symptom relief
B: Complete removal of the tumor
C: Pain management
D: Cosmetic enhancement
Answer: B: Complete removal of the tumor

‍

218. Chemotherapy Agent
Which chemotherapeutic agent is commonly used in the treatment of oral cancer?
A: Methotrexate
B: Cisplatin
C: Doxorubicin
D: Paclitaxel
Answer: B: Cisplatin

‍

219. Prognostic Factor
Which factor is most important in determining the prognosis of oral cancer?
A: Tumor size
B: Patient's age
C: Tumor location
D: Tumor grade and stage
Answer: D: Tumor grade and stage

‍

220. Follow-up Care
What is a critical aspect of follow-up care for oral cancer patients?
A: Routine dental scaling
B: Monitoring for recurrence
C: Regular blood tests
D: Cosmetic dentistry
Answer: B: Monitoring for recurrence

‍

221. Common Benign Oral Lesion
Which is the most common benign oral lesion?
A: Fibroma
B: Pyogenic granuloma
C: Mucocele
D: Ameloblastoma
Answer: A: Fibroma

‍

222. Diagnosis of Mucocele
What is the characteristic feature of a mucocele?
A: Painful ulcer
B: Fluid-filled cyst
C: Solid nodule
D: Calcified mass
Answer: B: Fluid-filled cyst

‍

223. Management of Pyogenic Granuloma
What is the preferred management of a pyogenic granuloma?
A: Observation
B: Surgical excision
C: Antibiotic therapy
D: Radiation therapy
Answer: B: Surgical excision

‍

224. Diagnosis of Fibroma
What is the most definitive method for diagnosing a fibroma?
A: Visual inspection
B: Biopsy and histopathological examination
C: Radiographic imaging
D: Salivary gland function test
Answer: B: Biopsy and histopathological examination

‍

225. Treatment of Leukoplakia
What is the primary treatment approach for leukoplakia?
A: Antifungal therapy
B: Antibiotic therapy
C: Surgical removal
D: Chemotherapy
Answer: C: Surgical removal

‍

226. Recurrence of Benign Lesions
Which benign oral lesion has a high recurrence rate after removal?
A: Lipoma
B: Pyogenic granuloma
C: Hemangioma
D: Giant cell granuloma
Answer: B: Pyogenic granuloma

‍

227. Diagnosis of Ameloblastoma
What is a key diagnostic feature of an ameloblastoma on radiographs?
A: Mixed radiolucent-radiopaque lesion
B: Unilocular radiolucency
C: Multilocular, soap-bubble appearance
D: Diffuse radiopacity
Answer: C: Multilocular, soap-bubble appearance

‍

228. Management of Hemangioma
What is the first-line treatment for a small, asymptomatic hemangioma?
A: Surgical excision
B: Observation
C: Laser therapy
D: Sclerotherapy
Answer: B: Observation

‍

229. Clinical Presentation of Lipoma
Which is a common clinical presentation of an oral lipoma?
A: Firm, painful mass
B: Soft, painless, yellowish mass
C: Hard, white plaque
D: Red, ulcerative nodule
Answer: B: Soft, painless, yellowish mass

‍

230. Treatment of Giant Cell Granuloma
What is the recommended treatment for a giant cell granuloma?
A: Radiation therapy
B: Corticosteroid injections
C: Surgical excision and curettage
D: Observation and follow-up
Answer: C: Surgical excision and curettage

‍

231. Risk of Malignancy
Which of the following has a higher risk of progressing to malignancy?
A: Leukoplakia
B: Erythroplakia
C: Lichen planus
D: Aphthous ulcers
Answer: B: Erythroplakia

‍

232. Primary Etiological Factor
What is the primary etiological factor for leukoplakia?
A: Viral infection
B: Chronic mechanical irritation
C: Tobacco use
D: Nutritional deficiencies
Answer: C: Tobacco use

‍

233. Diagnosis of Erythroplakia
What is the most definitive method for diagnosing erythroplakia?
A: Visual examination
B: Excisional biopsy
C: Blood test
D: Salivary diagnostic test
Answer: B: Excisional biopsy

‍

234. Common Location
Which is a common location for leukoplakia in the oral cavity?
A: Dorsal tongue
B: Floor of the mouth
C: Gingiva
D: Hard palate
Answer: B: Floor of the mouth

‍

235. Clinical Appearance
How does erythroplakia typically present clinically?
A: Red, velvety plaque
B: White, rough patch
C: Yellow, ulcerative lesion
D: Bluish nodule
Answer: A: Red, velvety plaque

‍

236. Management of Leukoplakia
What is the first step in the management of leukoplakia?
A: Immediate surgical removal
B: Observation and regular follow-up
C: Topical corticosteroids
D: Antiviral medication
Answer: B: Observation and regular follow-up

‍

237. Histopathological Examination
Which histopathological finding is often seen in leukoplakia?
A: Dysplasia
B: Hyperkeratosis
C: Neutrophilic infiltration
D: Necrosis
Answer: B: Hyperkeratosis

‍

238. Treatment for Dysplastic Lesions
What is the recommended treatment for leukoplakia with moderate dysplasia?
A: Laser ablation
B: Cryotherapy
C: Surgical excision
D: Topical antibiotics
Answer: C: Surgical excision

‍

239. Differential Diagnosis
Which condition must be differentiated from leukoplakia due to similar clinical appearance?
A: Oral lichen planus
B: Oral candidiasis
C: Oral cancer
D: Mucocele
Answer: A: Oral lichen planus

‍

240. Role of Biopsy
What is the primary role of a biopsy in managing erythroplakia?
A: To determine the extent of lesion
B: To relieve symptoms
C: To assess for dysplasia or malignancy
D: To prevent recurrence
Answer: C: To assess for dysplasia or malignancy

‍

241. Primary Cause of Oral Candidiasis
What is the primary cause of oral candidiasis?
A: Candida albicans
B: Streptococcus mutans
C: Herpes simplex virus
D: Human papillomavirus
Answer: A: Candida albicans

‍

242. Predisposing Factor
Which of the following is a predisposing factor for oral candidiasis?
A: Poor oral hygiene
B: Frequent tooth brushing
C: High water intake
D: Low carbohydrate diet
Answer: A: Poor oral hygiene

‍

243. Common Symptom
Which symptom is commonly associated with oral candidiasis?
A: White, curd-like plaques
B: Persistent bleeding
C: Firm, nodular masses
D: Vesicular lesions
Answer: A: White, curd-like plaques

‍

244. Diagnosis of Candidiasis
What is the best method for diagnosing oral candidiasis?
A: Visual examination
B: Culture of oral swab
C: Blood test
D: Radiographic imaging
Answer: B: Culture of oral swab

‍

245. Topical Antifungal Treatment
Which topical antifungal is commonly used to treat oral candidiasis?
A: Nystatin
B: Acyclovir
C: Amoxicillin
D: Metronidazole
Answer: A: Nystatin

‍

246. Systemic Antifungal Treatment
Which systemic antifungal medication is used for severe cases of oral candidiasis?
A: Fluconazole
B: Clindamycin
C: Doxycycline
D: Ciprofloxacin
Answer: A: Fluconazole

‍

247. Recurrent Oral Candidiasis
What is a common underlying condition associated with recurrent oral candidiasis?
A: Diabetes mellitus
B: Hypertension
C: Asthma
D: Epilepsy
Answer: A: Diabetes mellitus

‍

248. Effect of Dentures
How do dentures affect the risk of developing oral candidiasis?
A: Decrease the risk
B: Increase the risk
C: Have no effect
D: Only affect risk if poorly fitting
Answer: B: Increase the risk

‍

249. Oral Hygiene for Prevention
Which oral hygiene practice is recommended to prevent oral candidiasis?
A: Regular use of mouthwash containing alcohol
B: Brushing teeth twice daily with fluoride toothpaste
C: Daily consumption of sugary snacks
D: Avoiding all dairy products
Answer: B: Brushing teeth twice daily with fluoride toothpaste

‍

250. Nutritional Deficiency
Which nutritional deficiency is commonly linked to oral candidiasis?
A: Vitamin C
B: Iron
C: Vitamin D
D: Calcium
Answer: B: Iron

‍

251. Primary Virus
Which virus is responsible for herpetic lesions in the oral cavity?
A: Herpes simplex virus
B: Epstein-Barr virus
C: Human papillomavirus
D: Varicella-zoster virus
Answer: A: Herpes simplex virus

‍

252. Common Presentation
How do herpetic lesions typically present in the oral cavity?
A: Vesicular eruptions
B: White patches
C: Hard nodules
D: Erythematous macules
Answer: A: Vesicular eruptions

‍

253. Initial Outbreak
What is a common symptom during the initial outbreak of oral herpes?
A: Severe sore throat
B: Painful ulcers
C: Persistent dry mouth
D: Gingival recession
Answer: B: Painful ulcers

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254. Diagnosis of Herpetic Lesions
What is the gold standard for diagnosing herpetic lesions?
A: PCR testing
B: Culture of vesicular fluid
C: Blood test
D: Clinical examination
Answer: B: Culture of vesicular fluid

‍

255. Primary Treatment
What is the primary treatment for herpetic lesions?
A: Antiviral medication
B: Antibiotics
C: Corticosteroids
D: Antifungals
Answer: A: Antiviral medication

‍

256. Recurrent Herpes
What is the typical site for recurrent herpetic lesions in the oral cavity?
A: Hard palate
B: Dorsal tongue
C: Gingiva
D: Lips (herpes labialis)
Answer: D: Lips (herpes labialis)

‍

257. Prophylactic Treatment
Which antiviral medication is commonly used prophylactically to prevent recurrent herpetic lesions?
A: Acyclovir
B: Metronidazole
C: Fluconazole
D: Amoxicillin
Answer: A: Acyclovir

‍

258. Secondary Infection
Which of the following is a common secondary infection associated with herpetic lesions?
A: Bacterial superinfection
B: Fungal overgrowth
C: Viral co-infection
D: Parasitic infestation
Answer: A: Bacterial superinfection

‍

259. Differential Diagnosis
Which condition must be differentiated from herpetic lesions due to similar clinical appearance?
A: Aphthous ulcers
B: Oral lichen planus
C: Oral candidiasis
D: Leukoplakia
Answer: A: Aphthous ulcers

‍

260. Precipitating Factors
Which of the following is a common precipitating factor for recurrent herpetic lesions?
A: Stress
B: Low-calcium diet
C: High water intake
D: Regular exercise
Answer: A: Stress

‍

261. Characteristic Lesion
What is the characteristic lesion of oral lichen planus?
A: Wickham’s striae
B: Vesicles
C: Pustules
D: Plaques
Answer: A: Wickham’s striae

‍

262. Common Location
Which site is most commonly affected by oral lichen planus?
A: Gingiva
B: Dorsal tongue
C: Buccal mucosa
D: Hard palate
Answer: C: Buccal mucosa

‍

263. Etiology of Lichen Planus
What is believed to be the primary cause of oral lichen planus?
A: Autoimmune reaction
B: Viral infection
C: Bacterial infection
D: Fungal infection
Answer: A: Autoimmune reaction

‍

264. Histopathological Feature
Which histopathological feature is indicative of oral lichen planus?
A: Hyperkeratosis with saw-tooth rete ridges
B: Granulomatous inflammation
C: Acantholysis
D: Giant cell formation
Answer: A: Hyperkeratosis with saw-tooth rete ridges

‍

265. Common Symptom
What is a common symptom associated with oral lichen planus?
A: Burning sensation
B: Loss of taste
C: Excessive salivation
D: Xerostomia
Answer: A: Burning sensation

‍

266. Management of Mild Cases
What is the preferred management for mild cases of oral lichen planus?
A: Observation and regular follow-up
B: Surgical excision
C: Systemic corticosteroids
D: Antiviral therapy
Answer: A: Observation and regular follow-up

‍

267. First-line Treatment for Severe Cases
What is the first-line treatment for severe cases of oral lichen planus?
A: Topical corticosteroids
B: Antifungal medication
C: Antibiotics
D: Radiotherapy
Answer: A: Topical corticosteroids

‍

268. Risk of Malignancy
Which type of oral lichen planus carries a risk of malignant transformation?
A: Reticular type
B: Atrophic type
C: Erosive type
D: Plaque type
Answer: C: Erosive type

‍

269. Differential Diagnosis
Which condition must be differentiated from oral lichen planus due to similar clinical appearance?
A: Oral leukoplakia
B: Oral candidiasis
C: Herpetic lesions
D: Mucocele
Answer: A: Oral leukoplakia

‍

270. Role of Biopsy
What is the primary role of a biopsy in managing oral lichen planus?
A: To confirm diagnosis and rule out dysplasia or malignancy
B: To relieve symptoms
C: To prevent recurrence
D: To determine the extent of lesion
Answer: A: To confirm diagnosis and rule out dysplasia or malignancy

‍

271. Oral Sign of Diabetes
Which oral manifestation is commonly seen in patients with diabetes mellitus?
A: Periodontal disease
B: Oral leukoplakia
C: Herpetic lesions
D: Oral lichen planus
Answer: A: Periodontal disease

‍

272. HIV-Related Oral Lesion
Which oral lesion is frequently associated with HIV infection?
A: Kaposi's sarcoma
B: Ameloblastoma
C: Dentigerous cyst
D: Pleomorphic adenoma
Answer: A: Kaposi's sarcoma

‍

273. Oral Manifestation of Anemia
What is a common oral manifestation of iron deficiency anemia?
A: Atrophic glossitis
B: Mucocele
C: Ranula
D: Fibroma
Answer: A: Atrophic glossitis

‍

274. Systemic Disease and Xerostomia
Which systemic disease is most commonly associated with xerostomia?
A: Sjögren's syndrome
B: Hypertension
C: Asthma
D: Epilepsy
Answer: A: Sjögren's syndrome

‍

275. Oral Sign of Crohn’s Disease
Which oral finding is often associated with Crohn's disease?
A: Cobblestone mucosa
B: Wickham’s striae
C: Kaposi's sarcoma
D: Herpangina
Answer: A: Cobblestone mucosa

‍

276. Oral Manifestation of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Which oral manifestation is commonly seen in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus?
A: Oral ulcers
B: Pyogenic granuloma
C: Hemangioma
D: Lipoma
Answer: A: Oral ulcers

‍

277. Oral Manifestation of Leukemia
What is a common oral manifestation of leukemia?
A: Gingival hyperplasia
B: Oral lichen planus
C: Herpetic lesions
D: Oral leukoplakia
Answer: A: Gingival hyperplasia

‍

278. Systemic Disease and Pigmentation
Which systemic disease is associated with oral pigmentation?
A: Addison's disease
B: Parkinson’s disease
C: Asthma
D: Hypertension
Answer: A: Addison's disease

‍

279. Oral Sign of Vitamin C Deficiency
Which oral condition is commonly seen in patients with vitamin C deficiency?
A: Scurvy-related gingivitis
B: Pyogenic granuloma
C: Herpangina
D: Fibroma
Answer: A: Scurvy-related gingivitis

‍

280. Oral Manifestation of Syphilis
Which oral lesion is indicative of secondary syphilis?
A: Mucous patches
B: Wickham’s striae
C: Herpetic ulcers
D: Ameloblastoma
Answer: A: Mucous patches

‍

281. Most Common Salivary Gland Disorder
Which is the most common salivary gland disorder?
A: Sialolithiasis
B: Pleomorphic adenoma
C: Mucocele
D: Sjögren's syndrome
Answer: A: Sialolithiasis

‍

282. Diagnosis of Sialolithiasis
What is the best diagnostic tool for detecting salivary gland stones?
A: Ultrasonography
B: MRI
C: CT scan
D: Panoramic radiography
Answer: C: CT scan

‍

283. Primary Treatment for Mucocele
What is the primary treatment for a mucocele?
A: Surgical excision
B: Antibiotic therapy
C: Radiation therapy
D: Observation
Answer: A: Surgical excision

‍

284. Salivary Gland Infection
Which bacterium is most commonly associated with acute bacterial sialadenitis?
A: Staphylococcus aureus
B: Streptococcus mutans
C: Candida albicans
D: Epstein-Barr virus
Answer: A: Staphylococcus aureus

‍

285. Sjögren's Syndrome Diagnosis
Which diagnostic test is commonly used for Sjögren's syndrome?
A: Schirmer’s test
B: Salivary gland biopsy
C: Blood test for anti-Ro/SSA antibodies
D: All of the above
Answer: D: All of the above

‍

286. Treatment of Chronic Sialadenitis
What is the preferred treatment for chronic sialadenitis?
A: Antibiotics
B: Surgical removal of the affected gland
C: Steroid therapy
D: Radiation therapy
Answer: B: Surgical removal of the affected gland

‍

287. Benign Salivary Gland Tumor
Which benign tumor is most common in the salivary glands?
A: Pleomorphic adenoma
B: Warthin’s tumor
C: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D: Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Answer: A: Pleomorphic adenoma

‍

288. Sialadenosis Cause
What is a common cause of sialadenosis?
A: Nutritional deficiencies
B: Bacterial infection
C: Viral infection
D: Salivary gland stones
Answer: A: Nutritional deficiencies

‍

289. Malignant Salivary Gland Tumor
Which malignant tumor is most common in the salivary glands?
A: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
B: Pleomorphic adenoma
C: Adenoid cystic carcinoma
D: Warthin’s tumor
Answer: A: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

‍

290. Autoimmune Salivary Gland Disorder
Which autoimmune disorder primarily affects the salivary glands?
A: Sjögren's syndrome
B: Systemic lupus erythematosus
C: Rheumatoid arthritis
D: Sarcoidosis
Answer: A: Sjögren's syndrome

‍

291. Common Cause of Oral Ulcers
Which of the following is a common cause of oral ulcers?
A: Trauma
B: Viral infection
C: Autoimmune disease
D: All of the above
Answer: D: All of the above

‍

292. Primary Herpes Simplex Virus
Which type of herpes simplex virus is most commonly associated with oral ulcers?
A: HSV-1
B: HSV-2
C: HSV-3
D: HSV-4
Answer: A: HSV-1

‍

293. Aphthous Ulcer Characteristics
What is a characteristic feature of an aphthous ulcer?
A: Yellow center with a red halo
B: White plaque
C: Vesicular eruption
D: Red macule
Answer: A: Yellow center with a red halo

‍

294. Oral Ulcer and Systemic Disease
Which systemic disease is commonly associated with recurrent oral ulcers?
A: Behçet's disease
B: Hypertension
C: Asthma
D: Epilepsy
Answer: A: Behçet's disease

‍

295. Treatment of Traumatic Ulcers
What is the primary treatment for traumatic oral ulcers?
A: Topical corticosteroids
B: Removal of the irritant
C: Antiviral medication
D: Antibiotic therapy
Answer: B: Removal of the irritant

‍

296. Oral Ulcers and Crohn's Disease
Which oral lesion is often seen in patients with Crohn's disease?
A: Cobblestone mucosa
B: White reticular lesions
C: Erythematous patches
D: Vesicles and pustules
Answer: A: Cobblestone mucosa

‍

297. Diagnosis of Oral Candidiasis
What is the best diagnostic method for oral candidiasis presenting as oral ulcers?
A: Oral swab culture
B: Biopsy
C: Blood test
D: Salivary test
Answer: A: Oral swab culture

‍

298. Lichen Planus Lesions
What is a characteristic lesion of oral lichen planus?
A: Wickham’s striae
B: Herpetic ulcers
C: Vesicles and pustules
D: White plaque
Answer: A: Wickham’s striae

‍

299. Management of Major Aphthous Ulcers
What is the preferred treatment for major aphthous ulcers?
A: Systemic corticosteroids
B: Antiviral therapy
C: Antifungal medication
D: Topical antibiotics
Answer: A: Systemic corticosteroids

‍

300. Oral Ulcers and HIV/AIDS
Which oral ulcerative condition is commonly seen in patients with HIV/AIDS?
A: Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis
B: Herpangina
C: Mucocele
D: Leukoplakia
Answer: A: Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis